I was taking a shower this morning and this train of thought just kept going on in my head. I'm not writing this on my facebook page because it's just too darn long for the status box, and I don't want to put it in a FB notes because I want it on my blog... right here!
In sexology, psychology and medicine, a lot of researchers: describe and develop the modal sexual response model over the decades; can label and identify sexual disorders; re-categorize and redefine all type of sexuality items (by items: physiological, psychological, sociological, etc.); and, determine proper course of actions to treat them.
What is the ideal sexual relation? Where not one dysfunction is present? I guess the logical answer would be where all phase of the sexual response model associated are experienced properly. There it is: "(...) experienced properly." Human beings are as individual as they get and sexuality is proper to the individual. Logically, sexuality becomes individualize. As I heard the term, it can be said that I had a rich sex life. I've met so many (many) people where, if they didn't receive any complaints or never been compared, they think they're perfectly healthy and normal.
I keep thinking about this like: If a tree falls in the forest but no one is around to hear it; will it still make noise? A guy or a girl is an early cumer (this is more for guys) and it's never been an issue for him. It's never been an issue in his relationships or in singlehood. Would he consider it a dysfunction? A girl that needs to stimulate her clit while coital or finger penetration to cum and never had any complaints about it: would she feel inadequate? Two women in a relationship for 10 years and don't experience with penetration during the sexual relationship; who would know if any of the two suffer from vaginism. They just don't like penetration. A guy in his twenties who doesn't like to have sex once a week and prefers it once every 2 months. Is that an issue if he's single? If he's in a relationship with someone who feels and thinks the same way. I can easily pull 20 and more examples just on the top of my head, without getting in any paraphilias.
Do you get where I'm going with this?
I agree. Dysfunctions are socially defined. If the person doesn't see it as a problem, why should it be labeled a problem? I think that's why in general, things like paraphilia's are only "daignosed" when they are causing a person stress. I get off on the sight of blood but I don't see it as a problem and I don't engage in non-consensual blood play. Therefore, there is no dysfunction.
ReplyDeleteExactly and thanks for the comment. Plus your reply, made me understand that paraphilia take no "s" 'cus it's already plural. :)
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